One thing I am confused by though, is that it speaks about the wicked having suffered the punishment of eternal fire, doesn't the present active tense in Jude 7 imply that they are presently, and continuously suffering the punishment of eternal fire, leading traditionalists to interpret Jude 7 as referring to a continuous, eternal state of suffering for the inhabitants of Sodom and Gomorrah, and not their one-time punishment with eternal results?
The choice of Sodom and Gomorrah makes it clear that Jude is referring to what we know happened to them - namely, that they were killed by fire ("eternal fire") from heaven from God. That is the only example that they set forth for us in Scripture. Nobody reading or hearing Genesis 19 in the first century (or ours) would know anything else about their punishment. The account obviously does not serve as an example of eternal conscious torment. How could it possibly?.
It is natural and common to refer to a written account in the present tense. We all do it frequently. And in this particular case, it would be odd (at least in English) for Jude to say that S & G "served" as an example. Rather, the S & G account continues to "serve" - present tense - as an example. Of what? Of undergoing the penalty of eternal fire.
It would be awkward to say that S & G "serve as an example of having underwent the penalty of eternal fire."
It's quite a reach to suggest otherwise, I think, no matter how confidently stated. But that sort of argument has to be stated very confidently because otherwise it's pretty obvious how weak it is, I think.
"Singalphile" - Name chosen (hastily) to indicate being on a narrow path, pursuing the love of God. Male, upper-30's, USA.