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Reply Topic: 1 Corinthians 15
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[quote="Andrew32" post=5181]I read the new article refuting universalism. The writer seemed to have a decent case built around 1 Corinthians 15:26, so I looked up the text wondering if there were any problems with the explanation. Here is what I believe the text may be saying (in contrast to the article writer's understanding of the text). 22 For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive. This verse can't be ignored before looking at the rest of the chapter. The "all" in verse 22 appears to be a mathematically exhaustive "all," as in 100%. My reading of the rest of the chapter follows as an explanation of how "in Christ shall all be made alive." 23 But each in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, then at his coming those who belong to Christ. Now this subdivides the "all" into those who belong to Christ in this life and those who don't. It would seem that an explanation might follow for how "those who don't belong to Christ in this life" will "in Christ be made alive." It appears that verses 24-28 are somewhat poorly constructed in the ESV, chronologically. 24 "Then comes the end when he delivers the kingdom to God the Father" [summarizes this section] "after destroying every rule and every authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet." Does verse 25 not explain that Christ will reign over all (perhaps for ages and ages) [i]in between [/i] his second coming and "the end when he delivers the kingdom to God the Father." And does it not imply that during this time, all of his enemies are (potentially slowly) subjected to him? At the end of this period, it seems, that all will have accepted their place in creation. The enemies of Christ will have accepted their punishment/chastisement and come to know him as their Lord. Thereby there will be no enemies left once the last human who has lived has become submissive to Christ in will and heart. Then, 26 "The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27 For 'God has put all things in subjection under his feet.' ... 28b "...that God may be all in all." verse 29 is linked to this section above with 'otherwise' 29 "Otherwise, what do people mean by being baptized on behalf of the dead? If the dead are not raised at all, why are people baptized on their behalf?" verse 29 seems to point to my understanding of verse 25. In my estimation, the Mormons seem to have a point on this verse. Can someone kindly explain why my reading of these verses is wrong? Like I said, it seems that the author has a good argument. But with verses 22 and 29 included, how is his logic sound?[/quote]
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